[Dec 04, 2025] 220-1201 Dumps PDF and Test Engine Exam Questions - Prep4sureExam
Verified 220-1201 exam dumps Q&As with Correct 252 Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following network services is used to assign an IP address to a network host?
- A. SMTP
- B. DNS
- C. LDAP
- D. DHCP
Answer: D
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the service used to automatically assign IP addresses to network hosts. It dynamically manages the distribution of IP addresses and configuration details (like subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers), ensuring no two devices are assigned the same address on the network.
Option B (DNS): Incorrect. DNS translates domain names into IP addresses but does not assign them.
Option C (LDAP): Incorrect. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining directory services, such as user information and permissions.
Option D (SMTP): Incorrect. SMTP is used for sending and receiving email, not for IP address assignment.
References:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 2.5 (Network configuration)
NEW QUESTION # 44
A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the system.
The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the computer to a technician to diagnose the issue.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed"
CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting- tips-overclocking-pc/
NEW QUESTION # 45
A Wi-Fi router is set up in a central room. A user on the outer edge of the building reports slow connections and intermittent internet drops. Which of the following actions will solve the issue?
- A. Enabling the 5GHz band
- B. Installing additional wireless APs around the location
- C. Upgrading the laptop to a Wi-Fi 6 NIC
- D. Running the flushdns command
Answer: B
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.
Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.
Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA- aligned fix.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A technician sets up secure print and configures an NFC device that will authenticate users for access. Which of the following will the NFC device most likely use to authenticate?
- A. Password
- B. Biometrics
- C. Badging
- D. Passcode
Answer: C
Explanation:
Badging refers to the use of NFC-enabled ID badges or cards that authenticate users when tapped against a reader for secure print or access control.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 - Secure printing and authentication:
"NFC authentication is commonly implemented using employee badges, allowing secure and convenient access to devices and functions." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Secure Print Solutions CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
NEW QUESTION # 47
A SOHO user cannot connect to the internet. Their configuration shows:
IP: 192.168.223.15
Mask: 255.255.255.0
Gateway: 192.168.233.1
DNS: 8.8.8.8, 4.2.2.1, 4.2.2.2
Baseline documentation shows valid subnet range: 192.168.200.0-192.168.232.255.
Which setting must be changed?
- A. Subnet mask
- B. Gateway
- C. Primary DNS
- D. IP Address
- E. Secondary DNS
- F. Tertiary DNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The baseline documentation says the valid network range ends at 192.168.232.255, but the user's gateway is
192.168.233.1, which is outside the permitted network range. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that devices must have a gateway inside their own subnet.
Given a mask of 255.255.255.0, the user's subnet is 192.168.223.x, so the gateway must be in 192.168.223.x, not 192.168.233.x.
DNS settings are public and acceptable. The IP address and subnet mask are valid within the documented address space.
Therefore, the incorrect setting is the gateway, which prevents external routing. Correcting it resolves the connection issue, matching CompTIA's routing and TCP/IP troubleshooting procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following DNS records would an administrator change to redirect email flow?
- A. TXT
- B. CNAME
- C. MX
- D. SPF
Answer: C
Explanation:
AnMX (Mail Exchange)record defineswhich mail servers are responsible for receiving emailfor a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, theMX recordmust be updated with the correct server information.
Option B (TXT):Stores text-based info - used for SPF, DKIM, etc.
Option C (SPF):Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn't redirect traffic.
Option D (CNAME):Alias for another domain name - not used for email routing.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A technician is troubleshooting issues occurring on a user's mobile device. Applications and the OS have slow response times, even when performing simple tasks, such as writing an email. Additionally, new applications occasionally fail to launch. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Reset to factory default settings.
- B. Move the device to a room with a colder temperature.
- C. Close unnecessary programs.
- D. Check the battery health of the device.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
The symptoms - slow response and failed app launches - indicate that thedevice's memory or processing resources are overutilized. Closing unnecessary apps can free up RAM and CPU resources, improving performance.
* Option A:Overheating may cause sluggishness, but that's not indicated here.
* Option C:Factory reset is a last resort, not the next logical step.
* Option D:Battery health would affect uptime, not system speed.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is a characteristic of an NVMe drive?
- A. Molex connector
- B. 3.5in (8.9cm) external
- C. 7,200rpm
- D. M.2 interface
Answer: D
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 - Storage devices:
"NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following should a technician use to terminate a Cat 6 cable to a patch panel?
- A. Punchdown tool
- B. Network tap
- C. Toner probe
- D. Crimper
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A punchdown tool is specifically used to insert wires into a punchdown block in patch panels, which is typical for Cat 6 and similar cabling. It ensures a secure and correct connection by pushing the wire into a metal groove that slices the insulation.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide" by Mike Meyers - Chapter 18, page 758.
NEW QUESTION # 52
The display in a conference room has a ghost image that does not match the presentation Which of the following would test resolve the issue?
- A. Correct the keystone.
- B. Increase the brightness levels
- C. Replace the monitor.
- D. Adjust the color settings.
Answer: A
Explanation:
B:Correct the keystone:
A keystone correction adjusts the image shape when a projector is angled either up or down. When a projector is not positioned directly perpendicular to the screen, the image becomes distorted or offset. Correcting the keystone will resolve alignment issues, ensuring that the presentation matches the display.
Incorrect Options:
A:Adjust the color settings: This is used for improving color balance and has no impact on ghosting or mismatched images.
C:Increase the brightness levels: Brightness changes the visibility of the image but does not address ghosting or alignment.
D:Replace the monitor: Replacing the monitor is unnecessary unless there is hardware failure, which is not indicated here.
Key Takeaway: Keystone correction is essential to resolve alignment and distortion issues in projected images.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 3.4 - Display troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A user reports poor performance on the application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review the information presented in each chart to determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive that should be used, for the least performance degradation to the server.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the detailed solution in explanation below.
Explanation:
The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.
Recommended Replacement Drive:
To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:
SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).
Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.
In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.
A user reports poor performance on the
application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review
the information presented in each chart to
determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive
that should be used, for the least
performance degradation to the server.
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NEW QUESTION # 54
A management team is concerned about enterprise devices that do not have any controls in place. Which of the following should an administrator implement to address this concern?
- A. MDM
- B. MFA
- C. vpn
- D. SSL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables administrators to enforce controls on enterprise devices, such as restricting apps, ensuring compliance, and remotely managing security policies.
Why Not B (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user access but does not control device configurations.
Why Not C (VPN): VPN secures communication but does not enforce device controls.
Why Not D (SSL): SSL secures data in transit but does not provide device management.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management concepts.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A user reports poor performance on the application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review the information presented in each chart to determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive that should be used, for the least performance degradation to the server.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the detailed solution in explanation below.
Explanation:
The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.
Recommended Replacement Drive:
To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:
SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).
Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.
In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.
A user reports poor performance on the
application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review
the information presented in each chart to
determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive
that should be used, for the least
performance degradation to the server.
A computer server with many black and silver parts AI-generated content may be incorrect.A computer server with many black boxes Description automatically generated with medium confidence
A screen shot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A screen shot of a computer Description automatically generated
A computer screen shot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A computer screen shot of a computer Description automatically generated
A computer screen shot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A computer screen shot of a computer Description automatically generated
A computer screen shot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A computer screen shot of a computer Description automatically generated
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A screenshot of a computer Description
automatically generated
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A screenshot of a computer Description
automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 56
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer below in explanation part.
Explanation:
Answer of both steps below.
A group of wires with different colors AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A user reports that the print quality of their desk printer is poor. A technician replaces the ink cartridge, but this does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Replace the pickup rollers
- B. Clean the printheads
- C. Change the ribbon
- D. Switch the paper type
Answer: B
Explanation:
If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads.
Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 - Troubleshoot printing problems:
"Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
NEW QUESTION # 58
A network printer does not release a user's final print job from the queue, but the user's other print jobs successfully printed a few moments before. Other users can print without issues. Which of the following should the user check first to solve the issue?
- A. If the print queue is full and will not allow additional jobs
- B. If the print job is configured to a tray or manual feed
- C. If the computer and printer are connected to the same network
- D. If the printer has stopped due to empty trays
Answer: B
Explanation:
If only one print job fails and others succeed, it is often due to a paper type or tray selection mismatch for that specific job. If a print job is configured to use a tray that is empty or set to manual feed, it will not be released until resolved.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 - Printer troubleshooting:
"If a specific print job stalls while others succeed, check the job settings for specific tray or paper type configurations that do not match the printer's current setup." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
NEW QUESTION # 59
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC that is plugged into a UPS. The PC loses the system date/time after every power outage. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue? (Select two).
- A. Disable NTP in the OS.
- B. Run a BIOS update.
- C. Replace the CMOS battery
- D. Install a surge protector.
- E. Swap out the RAM.
- F. Repair the backup power source.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 1, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer below in explanation part.
Explanation:
Answer of both steps below.
A group of wires with different colors AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 61
An IT support specialist needs to configure several laptops to access local resources wherever the employees are while in the office. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
- A. Set up a Wi-Fi connection with a common SSID
- B. Configure cellular location services to facilitate device identification
- C. Create roaming profiles for each laptop
- D. Enable Bluetooth connectivity in all laptops
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (From CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Concepts):
A consistent Wi-Fi SSID across all APs allows users to roam throughout the office while maintaining access to local resources without reconnecting manually.
CompTIA Core 1 Study Guide Concept Reference:
* Wireless networking configuration
* SSID broadcast and roaming
* WLAN infrastructure
The study guide explains that a common SSID enables seamless roaming and uninterrupted access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A technician is diagnosing several device issues reported by employees.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each device to review the issue. Then select the appropriate issue and solution from the drop-down menu. Each option may be used more than once.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A user is unable to access secure applications on their tablet when working from home a couple days per week, but the applications work when in the office. Which of the following services most likely needs to be reconfigured to allow for remote work?
- A. Wi-Fi Protected Access
- B. Near-field communication
- C. Mobile device management
- D. Global Positioning System
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM)software often controls access to corporate resources based onlocation, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.
* Option A:GPS is used for location services, not access control.
* Option C:WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.
* Option D:NFC enables close-range communication - irrelevant to app access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A technician is troubleshooting an all-in-one laser printer that prints a vertical line when making copies and scans. When users print or receive faxes, the output from the printer is correct. Which of the following should the technician examine to determine the cause of the issue?
- A. The corona wire
- B. The document feeder
- C. The pickup rollers
- D. The drum assembly
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the issue only occurs during scanning and copying (not printing or faxing), the problem is isolated to the document feeder. A vertical line is typically caused by debris or damage on theglass under the ADF (Automatic Document Feeder), not on components related to printing.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 4, page 261.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A developer wants to protect critical data from hard drive failure. Their workstation has two hard drives.
Which RAID level should they use?
- A. RAID 0
- B. RAID 10
- C. RAID 1
- D. RAID 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.
RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.
RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA's guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.
NEW QUESTION # 66
......
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